- Parent Category: FAQs
- Category: Bible Questions and answers about the Church
- Published on Wednesday, 09 February 2011 17:26
THE LORD’S SUPPER
Did the Lord Himself partake of the emblems when He instituted the Supper?
In none of the three synoptic accounts is it said that He did, though the words of Matthew 26:29 and Mark 14:25: “Verily I say unto you, I will drink no more of the fruit of the vine, until that day that I drink it new in the Kingdom,” may be taken to convey an inference that he did at least partake of the cup. Equally well they might be taken as explanatory of His not doing so. In any case, I believe it is a false inference, for in Luke 22:18, where we have, I judge, the true order, both these words and similar ones in v. 16referring to what He had just eaten, are connected with the Passover. This order in Luke is, I believe, determinant, and permits us to give weight to two moral considerations. Why should the Lord need to partake of the memorial of His own sufferings? and how could He suitably partake of the emblems of His own body and blood?