- Parent Category: FAQs
- Category: Bible Questions and answers about Jesus Christ
- Published on Thursday, 19 November 2009 12:25
As with any question regarding the sufferings of our Lord, we should guard our words and hide within the safety of the words of Scripture. If there is anything to which we might object in the statement, "God punished His Son," it is the possibility that this suggests God’s displeasure in the One Who suffered on the cross. God’s dealing with the Lord Jesus on the cross were directed against the sins He bore. The words of the hymn seem mistaken, "He took my sins and my sorrows; He made them His very own." The sins were not in any sense His, although He received the righteous judgment those sins demanded (2 Corinthians 5:21). The Father could never be more delighted with His Son than when the savor of that sacrifice filled His thrice-holy presence.
Some object to the word "punish" in this context. Keil and Delitzsch in their scholarly "Commentary on the Old Testament" insist that "chastisement" in Isaiah 53:5 (AV) be translated "punishment," due to the extreme suffering that fills the context. The contrast in that verse is between "Him" and "we." The righteous punishment was what we deserved. The remarkable discovery is that the peace-bringing punishment was on Him.
Others object to speaking of the Son in the context of the sufferings of the cross. Paul speaks of "the death of His Son" (Romans 5:10); he further tells us, "He that spared not His own Son, . . . freely delivered Him up for us all" (8:32). From what was the Son not spared? To what was the Son delivered up? God did not spare His own Son from the cross, but delivered Him up (the same word as in 4:25) to all that the cross involved.
It would be error of the highest order to suggest either that any sort of division occurred between Divine Persons in the darkness at the cross or that the One Who suffered the righteous punishment due to our sins was any less than the Son of God.
The more we ponder that scene, the more we worship.