- Parent Category: FAQs
- Category: Bible Questions and answers about Jesus Christ
- Published on Thursday, 19 November 2009 17:02
At least a dozen times in the Old Testament the expression "son of man" designates an ordinary mortal human. The two potentially messianic passages (Psa 80:17; Dan 7:13) use the same form of expression. If we had only the Old Testament, we might wonder if "the Son of Man" designates the Messiah or merely describes a man.
The records of the Lord’s trial before the high priest, however, are conclusive. Matthew (26: 63-65) and Mark (14:61-63) record the high priest’s question, "Art Thou the Christ, the Son of God (Mk: "the Blessed")?" The Lord’s answer was, "Hereafter shall ye see the Son of Man sitting on the right hand of power, and coming in the clouds of heaven." This is an incontrovertible reference to Daniel’s prophecy (7:13). The Lord used the title "the Son of Man" interchangeably with "the Christ" and "the Son of God," therefore it is a messianic title.
Luke’s account (22:67-71) adds another detail, confirming that the Jews understood this to be a messianic title. After the Lord claimed to be the Son of Man, all who were with the high priest asked practically the same question as the high priest, "Art Thou then the Son of God?" They understood that His use of the title was a messianic claim.