Does the Lord Jesus possess omniscience only as far as the Father allows?

Does the Lord Jesus possess omniscience only as far as the Father allows? (John 13:3)

The passage from which this question arises is, "Jesus knowing that the Father had given all things into His hands . . ." (John 13:3). Another passage that raises this question is "But of that day and that hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels which are in heaven, neither the Son, but the Father" (Mar 13:32). The Lord’s statement, "It is not for you to know the times or the seasons, which the Father hath put in His own power" (Acts 1:7), may shed some helpful light on this issue. The Father has placed information in His authority. It is His right to disclose it in keeping with His purpose. The Son knew all things (John 16:30). For instance, He knew all that the Father was going to do, but He only acted on what the Father was doing at that moment (5:19). He knew all that was involved as He brought God into full revelation (1:18), yet He only spoke what the Father told Him to speak (12:49). In the passage under question in John 13, He always knew what the Father had committed into His hands, but He now acted in keeping with that awareness. He always acted, thought, and spoke consistent with His distinct role in the Godhead.

D. Oliver