Does "the coming of the Son of Man" refer to the Rapture?

Does "the coming of the Son of Man" refer to the Rapture?

This expression occurs three times in Matthew 24 and, like any Bible expression, must be understood from its context and background. In each case, a comparison is given: "as ... so." At verse 27 the coming of the Son of Man is compared to lightning which will be seen universally. At verse 37 & 39 it is paralleled with the sudden judgment executed at the flood. The same context describes the Son of Man "coming in the clouds of heaven with power and great glory" (verse 30). This latter is an illusion to Daniel 7:1344, where Gentile rule is terminated and the Son of Man receives universal and eternal dominion. Hence, the expression, in context does not refer to the Rapture but to the future advent of the Lord Jesus to earth when He will judge the evil of this world and, in His character as "Son of Man," take the position forfeited by the first man. He will then come and sit on the throne of His glory (Matthew 25:31) and realize the dominion belonging to the "son of man" in Psalm 8.

D. GilIiland