Can a Church use more than one cup and still show communion?

Some large assembly gatherings use more than one cup. Is this scriptural or should this practice change?

The significance of the "one cup" is that it is "the communion of the blood of Christ" (1 Corinthians 10:16). When we partake of it, we are professing that the one ground of our fellowship with God is the precious blood of Christ. The "one loaf" of 1 Corinthians 10: is the emblem of the oneness of assembly fellowship. This is the greatest chapter in the New Testament dealing with the fellowship of an assembly. Verse 17 very likely means that the "one body" is the Corinthian assembly rather than the large aspect of the Body (Eph 1:22-23). In the three Gospel records of the institution of the supper and in the two passages in 1 Corinthians 10:16 and 11:25, it is important that "cup" is singular. Individual cups can never be construed as being a "cup of ... the communion of the blood of Christ." In Acts 2:41 and 4:4 as many as 3,000 and later 5,000 met together to break bread. I have never heard anyone explain how such a company could use only one cup in their remembrance of the Lord. "One cup" is most significant and we should maintain this principle to the best of our ability. When necessity demands that several cups are needed, we should not let this deteriorate into individual cups. It should still be "a cup of communion" or a common cup.

N. Crawford

Other pages in this section

Readers have left 2 comments.

2. one cup
Reynaldo Besana, Unregistered

The word cup refers not to the vessel but to its contents.I can't imagine the disciples drinking from the same cup in serial fashion since I believe each has a cup of his own during the meal. They may have poured some amount of it into their own cups. The 'one cup' idea is, to my mind , already "straining at a gnat" and therefore stupid. The main intent was for each of them to partake of the contents of that cup. The protocol did not count. Else we would be debating as to who drank first, did everyone have their share (how big was that cup, anyway), etc. which does not have any bearing to the purpose.

Posted 2012-10-15 05:23:36

1. un titled
Your Name, Unregistered

Is it proper for a husband and wife to remember the Lord (break bread) in their home if there is no assembly in the area? I realize that 1 Cor.11 puts this into an assembly privledge however, many assemblies were founded in homes of those who realized NT order and started with a gathering of 2 or three believers.

Posted 2011-03-12 17:50:59

< Prev		Next >

[ Back ]

Main Menu